The article Centre-State Relations & Inter-state Relations GK MCQs provides a comprehensive collection of multiple-choice questions designed to help readers enhance their knowledge of the intricate dynamics between the central and state governments in India.
It covers key aspects of legislative, administrative, and financial relations between the Centre and the states, as well as the mechanisms governing inter-state interactions. Ideal for competitive exam preparation, this article will test and expand your understanding of India’s federal structure and the constitutional provisions that shape these relationships.
1. In which year was the Sarkaria Commission on Centre-State relations set up by the Government of India?
- 1980
- 1983
- 1987
- 1992
Show Answer
Answer: 1983
The Sarkaria Commission was set up in June 1983 by the central government to examine the relationship and balance of power between state and central governments in the country and suggest changes within the framework of the Constitution of India.
2. The Constitution of India guarantees which of the following to the states of India?
- Territorial Integrity
- Sovereignty
- Right to secede from Union
- None of them
Show Answer
Answer: None of them
The Constitution of India does not guarantee any of the above to the states.The Constitution of India does not provide states with guarantees against changes to their territorial integrity without their consent. The formation and reorganization of states within the Indian Union are determined by the central government, and such changes typically require parliamentary approval and, in some cases, the consent of the affected state legislatures. It does not grant states sovereignty or the right to secede from the Union. India is a sovereign, democratic republic with a federal structure, and the states are an integral part of the Indian Union, and their territorial integrity is protected by the Constitution.
3. The Sarkaria commission is related to which of the following?
- Centre and State Relations
- Banking & Financial Sector
- Elections Reforms
- Freedom of Press In India
Show Answer
Answer: Centre and State Relations
The Sarkaria Commission was set up in June 1983 by the central government of India to examine the relationship and balance of power between state and central governments in the country and suggest changes within the framework of the Constitution of India.
4. For which purpose, Rajamanar Committee was constituted?
- Industrial Licensing
- Direct taxes
- Centre State Fiscal Relations
- Indirect taxes
Show Answer
Answer: Centre State Fiscal Relations
A Centre-State Relations Inquiry Committee was set up by the then DMK Government of Tamil Nadu on 2nd September 1969 under the Chairmanship of Dr. P.V. Rajamanar to consider the entire question regarding the relationship that should subsist between the Centre and the States in a federal set up.
5. Economic and social planning comes under which of the following?
- Union List
- State List
- Concurrent List
- None of the above
Show Answer
Answer: Concurrent List
Economic & Social planning is listed on 20 in the Concurrent list in the 7th schedule of India.
6. Who among the following can establish an Inter-State Council?
- President
- Supreme Court
- Prime Minister
- Parliament
Show Answer
Answer: President
The Inter-State Council is a constitutional body created through provisions in Article 263 of the Constitution of India. It is established by a Presidential Order and serves as a forum for the central and state governments to discuss and resolve issues of common interest, facilitating cooperation and coordination among them.
7. In which of the following situations can a President establish an Inter-State Council?
- During an emergency
- When the council of Ministers recommends him/her to do so
- When parliament passes a law
- When it appears to him/her that it would be serving the public interest
Show Answer
Answer: When it appears to him/her that it would be serving the public interest
Article 263 of the Indian Constitution empowers the President of India to establish an Inter-State Council when it is deemed to be in the public interest. This provision allows for the creation of the council to address specific intergovernmental matters when required.
8. Who among the following has been given rights to legislate on residuary subjects?
- State government
- Central government
- Both central and state governments
- President
Show Answer
Answer: Central government
Residuary subjects refer to matters or issues that are not explicitly mentioned in any of the three lists—Union List, State List, or Concurrent List—of the Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution. In such cases, the power to legislate on these subjects is vested with the Central government, ensuring that no important aspects of governance are left unaddressed.
9. How many states are part of the North Eastern Council?
- 5
- 6
- 7
- 8
Show Answer
Answer: 8
The North Eastern Council (NEC) consists of eight member states in the northeastern region of India. These states are Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland, Sikkim, and Tripura. Sikkim became the eighth member state of the Council in 2002, promoting regional cooperation and development in the northeastern states.
10. In which of the following months is Quami Ekta Week or National Integration Week celebrated every year?
- October
- November
- December
- January
Show Answer
Answer: November
Quami Ekta Week is observed in India from November 19 to November 25 every year. This week is dedicated to promoting national integration and communal harmony, fostering a sense of unity among the diverse communities and cultures in the country. It serves as a reminder of the importance of peace and harmony in India’s pluralistic society.
Q11: Which of the following Articles of the Constitution deals with the legislative relations between the Centre and the states?
1. Article 235 to 245
2. Articles 245 to 255
3. Article 255 to 265
4. None of the above
Show Answer
Answer: 2
Explanation: Articles 245 to 255 in Part XI of the Indian Constitution deal with legislative relations between the central government (Parliament) and the state governments. These articles outline the distribution of legislative powers and mechanisms for resolving disputes between the two levels of government.
Q12: Which of the following comes under the territory of India?
1. States
2. Union Territories
3. Any other area for the time being included in the territory of India
4. All of the above
Show Answer
Answer: 4
Explanation: The Parliament of India is empowered to make laws that apply to the entire territory of India. The territory of India encompasses the states, union territories, and any other areas included within its boundaries.
Q13: Who can make extraterritorial legislation among the following?
1. The Parliament
2. The Judiciary
3. The President
4. The Prime Minister
Show Answer
Answer: 1
Explanation: The concept of extraterritorial legislation means that laws enacted by the Indian Parliament can also apply to Indian citizens and their property in any part of the world, extending the reach of Indian law beyond its national borders.
Q14: Who can make regulations for the peace, progress, and good government of the Union Territories?
1. The Parliament
2. The Cabinet
3. The Prime Minister
4. The President
Show Answer
Answer: 4
Explanation: The President of India has the authority to make regulations concerning the governance and administration of the five Union Territories in India, which are Andaman and Nicobar Islands, Lakshadweep, Dadra and Nagar Haveli, Daman and Diu, and Ladakh.
Q15: Who is empowered to direct that an act of Parliament does not apply to a scheduled area in the state?
1. Governor
2. President
3. Prime Minister
4. Members of Lok Sabha
Show Answer
Answer: 1
Explanation: The Governor of a state has the power to direct that an act of Parliament does not apply to a specific scheduled area within the state, or it may apply with specified modifications and exceptions. This provision allows for customization of central laws to suit the needs of particular regions.
Q16: How many subjects does the Union List presently have?
1. 98
2. 99
3. 100
4. 101
Show Answer
Answer: 3
Explanation: The Parliament of India has exclusive legislative powers over the subjects listed in the Union List of the Constitution, which originally consisted of 97 subjects but currently includes 100 subjects.
Q17: How many subjects are present in the State List of the Indian Constitution?
1. 58
2. 59
3. 60
4. 61
Show Answer
Answer: 4
Explanation: The State List, consisting of subjects that fall under the exclusive jurisdiction of state governments, currently contains 61 subjects, which have been reduced from the original 66 subjects.
Q18: Which of the following subjects were transferred to the Concurrent List from the State List by the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976?
1. Education
2. Forests
3. Weights
4. All of the above
Show Answer
Answer: 4
Explanation: The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 transferred five subjects, including education, forests, weights and measures, protection of wild animals and birds, and administration of justice, from the State List to the Concurrent List. This means both the Parliament and state legislatures can make laws on these subjects.
Q19: How many subjects are there in the Concurrent List of the Constitution of India?
1. 52
2. 53
3. 54
4. 56
Show Answer
Answer: 1
Explanation: The Concurrent List presently comprises 52 subjects on which both the Parliament and state legislatures can enact laws. It includes areas like criminal law, marriage and divorce, bankruptcy and insolvency, education, and more.
Q20: Which amendment is related to Goods and Services Tax?
1. 100th Amendment
2. 101st Amendment
3. 102nd Amendment
4. 103rd Amendment
Show Answer
Answer: 2
Explanation: The 101st Amendment Act of 2016 introduced special provisions for the Goods and Services Tax (GST) in the Constitution of India. It granted both the Parliament and state legislatures the authority to make laws related to GST, which can be imposed by the Union or the states.
Q21: Who has the power to make laws with respect to residuary subjects?
1. The President
2. The Parliament
3. The Prime Minister
4. The Vice President
Show Answer
Answer: 2
Explanation: The Parliament has the power to make laws regarding residuary subjects. Residuary subjects are those that are not explicitly mentioned in any of the three lists (Union, State, or Concurrent). This power includes the ability to levy residuary taxes and govern matters not covered in the specified lists.
Q22: In the Constitution of which country are the residuary powers left with the States?
1. Canada
2. India
3. US
4. None of the above
Show Answer
Answer: 3
Explanation: Unlike the Indian Constitution, the United States Constitution enumerates powers specifically granted to the federal government, and any powers not specified therein are reserved for the states. In contrast, the Indian Constitution gives the residuary powers to the central government.
Q23: Which list prevails when there is a conflict between the Concurrent List and the State List?
1. Concurrent List
2. State List
3. Union List
4. Residuary List
Show Answer
Answer: 1
Explanation: When there is an overlap between subjects listed in the Union List and the State List, the Union List takes precedence. Similarly, in case of conflicts between the Union List and the Concurrent List, the Union List prevails. If a conflict arises between the Concurrent List and the State List, the Concurrent List supersedes the State List, ensuring uniformity in areas of shared jurisdiction.
Q24: Who can empower the Parliament to make laws with respect to goods and services tax or a matter in the State List?
1. The President
2. The Rajya Sabha
3. The Lok Sabha
4. The Prime Minister
Show Answer
Answer: 2
Explanation: The Rajya Sabha, which is the upper house of the Indian Parliament, holds the power to declare that the Parliament can make laws with respect to goods and services tax or any matter in the State List. This declaration effectively empowers the Parliament to legislate on such subjects, even though they would typically fall under the jurisdiction of the states.
Q25: Who becomes empowered to legislate with respect to goods and services tax or matters in the State List while a proclamation of national emergency is in operation?
1. The President
2. The Prime Minister
3. The Cabinet
4. The Parliament
Show Answer
Answer: 4
Explanation: During a National Emergency declared under Article 352 of the Indian Constitution, the Parliament gains the authority to legislate on goods and services tax or matters in the State List. These laws remain in effect even after the National Emergency has been lifted, ensuring that the central government can continue to exercise control over these subjects.
Q26: Who can make laws on any matter in the State List for implementing international treaties, agreements, or conventions?
1. The Parliament
2. The Council of Ministers
3. The Prime Minister
4. The Vice President
Show Answer
Answer: 1
Explanation: The Parliament of India is granted the power to make laws on any matter within the State List when it is necessary to implement international treaties, agreements, or conventions. This provision enables the central government to fulfill its international commitments and obligations without infringing upon states’ autonomy.
Q27: Who becomes empowered to make laws when the President’s rule is imposed in a state?
1. The Governor
2. The President
3. The Prime Minister
4. The Parliament
Show Answer
Answer: 4
Explanation: When President’s rule is imposed in a state under Article 356, the Parliament becomes empowered to make laws with respect to any matter in the State List for that specific state. These laws remain operative even after the President’s rule has been lifted, ensuring a degree of continued central control in certain areas.
Q28: Which article of the Indian Constitution enumerates the Residuary powers of legislation?
1. 247
2. 248
3. 249
4. 250
Show Answer
Answer: 2
Explanation: Article 248 of the Indian Constitution defines the Residuary powers of legislation. These powers encompass subjects not explicitly mentioned in any of the three lists—Union List, State List, and Concurrent List. Residuary powers grant the central government the authority to legislate on matters that do not fall within the specified jurisdiction of either the central or state governments.
Q29: In which year was the first Inter-State Council set up?
1. 1990
2. 1991
3. 1992
4. 1993
Show Answer
Answer: 4
Explanation: Article 263 of the Indian Constitution grants the President the authority to establish an Inter-State Council. This council is responsible for investigating and discussing subjects of common interest between the central government and the states. The establishment of such councils facilitates cooperative decision-making and coordination on shared matters.
Q30: When was the Indian Forest Service (IFS) created?
1. 1965
2. 1966
3. 1967
4. 1968
Show Answer
Answer: 2
Explanation: The Indian Forest Service (IFS) was established as one of the All India Services in 1966, alongside the Indian Administrative Service (IAS) and the Indian Police Service (IPS). These services are responsible for various administrative and specialized roles in the government.
Q31: In which year was the Indian Civil Service (ICS) replaced by IAS?
1. 1947
2. 1948
3. 1949
4. 1950
Show Answer
Answer: 1
Explanation: The Indian Civil Service (ICS) was replaced by the Indian Administrative Service (IAS), and the Indian Police (IP) was replaced by the Indian Police Service (IPS) in 1947. These replacements were recognized as All-India Services by the Indian Constitution, emphasizing their importance in the administrative structure.
Q32: Who can pass a resolution for the constitution of a new All India Service?
1. The Parliament
2. The Lok Sabha
3. The Rajya Sabha
4. The President
Show Answer
Answer: 3
Explanation: Article 312 of the Constitution authorizes the Parliament to create new All-India Services upon passing a resolution in the Rajya Sabha. These services are jointly controlled by both the central and state governments, with the central government holding ultimate authority and the state governments exercising immediate control.
Q33: Who appoints the chairman and members of the Joint State Public Service Commission?
1. The Governor
2. The President
3. The Prime Minister
4. The Chief Justice of India
Show Answer
Answer: 2
Explanation: A Joint State Public Service Commission (JSPSC) for two or more states can be established by the Parliament at the request of the concerned state legislatures. The chairman and members of the JSPSC are appointed by the President, and these commissions play a vital role in conducting recruitment exams for state government posts.
Q34: Who appoints the judges of a state high court?
1. President
2. Prime Minister
3. Governor
4. President in consultation with the Chief Justice of India and the governor of the state
Show Answer
Answer: 4
Explanation: Judges of a state high court are appointed by the President of India in consultation with the Chief Justice of India and the governor of the respective state. The President also possesses the authority to transfer and remove these judges, ensuring a degree of central influence in the appointment and maintenance of judicial officials in the states.
Q35: Which of the following duties are imposed by Article 355 on the Centre?
1. To protect every state against external aggression and internal disturbance.
2. To ensure that the government of every state is carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution.
1. Only 1
2. Only 2
3. Both 1 & 2
4. Neither 1 & 2
Show Answer
Answer: 3
Explanation: Article 355 of the Indian Constitution imposes two key duties on the Central government. Firstly, it obliges the Centre to protect every state against external aggression and internal disturbances, thereby safeguarding the security of the nation. Secondly, it requires the Centre to ensure that the government of every state is carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution, ensuring that state governments operate within the framework of the Constitution.
Q36: Which Article of the Constitution deals with Centre-state financial relations?
1. Article 293 to 111
2. Article 258 to 268
3. Articles 268 to 293
4. None of the above
Show Answer
Answer: 3
Explanation: Centre-state financial relations in India are primarily governed by Articles 268 to 293 in Part XII of the Constitution. These articles detail the mechanisms for the distribution of financial resources between the Central and state governments, including matters related to taxation, grants-in-aid, and revenue-sharing.
Q37: Which Article empowers the Parliament to make grants to the states which are in need of financial assistance and not to every state?
1. Article 273
2. Article 374
3. Article 275
4. Article 375
Show Answer
Answer: 3
Explanation: Article 275 empowers the Indian Parliament to make grants to states that are in need of financial assistance. It does not mandate financial aid to all states, allowing the Parliament to allocate different sums to different states based on their specific requirements. These grants are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India.
Q38: According to which Article, both the Centre and the states are empowered to make discretionary grants?
1. Article 282
2. Article 283
3. Article 284
4. Article 285
Show Answer
Answer: 1
Explanation: Article 282 of the Constitution provides both the Central and state governments with the authority to make grants for any public purpose, even if it falls outside their respective legislative competence. These grants, often referred to as discretionary grants, are not obligatory, and their allocation is at the discretion of the relevant government.
Q39: Who is empowered to constitute a GST Council?
1. The Parliament
2. The President
3. The Prime Minister
4. The Rajya Sabha
Show Answer
Answer: 2
Explanation: Article 279-A of the Indian Constitution empowers the President to establish a Goods and Services Tax (GST) Council. This council serves as a collaborative forum for both the Centre and the states to make recommendations and decisions regarding GST and related matters.
Q40: Who was appointed as the Chairman of the six-member Administrative Reforms Commission (ARC) in 1966?
1. Jawaharlal Nehru
2. H.C. Mathur
3. V. Shankar
4. Morarji Desai
Show Answer
Answer: 4
Explanation: In 1966, a six-member Administrative Reforms Commission (ARC) was appointed by the Central Government. Chaired by Morarji Desai and later by K. Hanumanthayya, the ARC was tasked with examining various issues related to Centre-state relations and suggesting reforms to enhance administrative efficiency and coordination.
Q41: Which state had appointed the Rajamannar Committee in 1969?
1. Andhra Pradesh
2. Orissa
3. Tamil Nadu
4. West Bengal
Show Answer
Answer: 3
Explanation: In 1969, the Tami l Nadu Government, led by the Communists, established a three-member committee chaired by Dr. P.V. Rajamannar. This committee was tasked with examining Centre-state relations and proposing constitutional amendments to grant greater autonomy to the states.
Q42: In which year was the Anandpur Sahib Resolution adopted by Akali Dal?
1. 1970
2. 1971
3. 1972
4. 1973
Show Answer
Answer: 4
Explanation: The Anandpur Sahib Resolution, adopted in 1973 by the Akali Dal, demanded a restriction of the Centre’s jurisdiction to defense, foreign affairs, communications, and currency. It called for vesting all remaining powers in the states, seeking greater autonomy for state governments.
Q43: Which State published a memorandum on Centre-state relations and sent it to the Central government in 1977?
1. Andhra Pradesh
2. Orissa
3. Tamil Nadu
4. West Bengal
Show Answer
Answer: 4
Explanation: In 1977, the West Bengal government, under Chief Minister Jyoti Basu, published a memorandum on Centre-state relations. This document sought to redefine the relationship between the Centre and states and reduce central intervention in the affairs of state governments.
Q44: What are the two administrative organs of the Government of India?
1. Parliament and State Legislatures
2. Union Executive and State Executives
3. Supreme Court and State High Courts
4. President and Prime Minister
Show Answer
Answer: 2
Explanation: The Government of India consists of two principal administrative organs: the Union Executive, which includes the President, Vice-President, and Prime Minister, and the State Executives, comprising Governors and Chief Ministers. These authorities are responsible for the governance of the country at both the central and state levels.
Q45: In which year was the State Reorganisation Commission appointed by the Central government?
1. 1951
2. 1953
3. 1955
4. 1956
Show Answer
Answer: 2
Explanation: The State Reorganisation Commission, appointed by the Central government in 1953 and chaired by Justice Fazal Ali, was tasked with recommending the reorganization of state boundaries in India. Its work led to the creation of new states and the redrawing of state boundaries to better align with linguistic and administrative considerations.
Q46: Which of the following subjects comes under the Union List?
1. Police
2. Public Health
3. Criminal Law
4. Agriculture
Show Answer
Answer: 3
Explanation: Criminal law is among the subjects listed in the Union List of the Indian Constitution. This means that the Parliament of India has exclusive legislative authority over criminal law, and it can make laws related to crimes, investigations, and penalties.
Q47: Which of the following is NOT a subject in the State List?
1. Police
2. Public Health
3. Prisons
4. Foreign Affairs
Show Answer
Answer: 4
Explanation: Foreign Affairs is a subject included in the Union List of the Indian Constitution. This means that the exclusive authority to make laws and decisions related to foreign affairs rests with the Central government. Matters concerning international relations, treaties, foreign trade, and diplomatic relations fall under the purview of the Union government.
Q48: In which of the following lists are subjects like police, public health, and prisons included?
1. Union List
2. State List
3. Concurrent List
4. Residuary List
Show Answer
Answer: 2
Explanation: Subjects such as police, public health, and prisons are listed in the State List of the Constitution. In this list, state governments have exclusive powers to legislate and govern on matters enumerated within these areas. State governments are responsible for maintaining law and order, public health, and the administration of prisons within their respective states.
Q49: Who can authorise the imposition of the President’s rule in a state?
1. The President
2. The Chief Minister of the state
3. The Governor of the state
4. The Prime Minister
Show Answer
Answer: 1
Explanation: The President of India can authorize the imposition of President’s rule in a state if, based on a report from the Governor or other sources, the President is satisfied that the governance of the state cannot be carried out in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution. President’s rule temporarily suspends the normal constitutional machinery in the state, allowing for direct rule by the Central government.
Q50: Under which Article of the Constitution, the President’s rule can be imposed on the grounds of financial emergency?
1. Article 356
2. Article 360
3. Article 370
4. Article 380
Show Answer
Answer: 2
Explanation: Article 360 of the Indian Constitution deals with the provisions for the imposition of a financial emergency. It grants the President the authority to proclaim a financial emergency if there is a threat to the financial stability or credit of India or any part of its territory. During a financial emergency, the President can issue directions to state governments to manage the financial situation effectively.
Q51: In which of the following situations, the President’s rule is not applicable in a state?
1. If a state is not able to form a ministry after the general elections
2. If the elected government loses majority support
3. If a coalition government falls apart
4. If the Governor is dissatisfied with the Chief Minister
Show Answer
Answer: 4
Explanation: President’s rule is not applicable if the Governor is dissatisfied with the Chief Minister of a state. The Governor does have the discretion to dismiss the Chief Minister, but they cannot dissolve the Legislative Assembly. President’s rule, if imposed, means that the state government is temporarily dissolved, and the state is administered directly by the Central government.
Q52: In which year was the first President’s rule imposed in Punjab?
1. 1951
2. 1956
3. 1966
4. 1972
Show Answer
Answer: 1
Explanation: The first instance of President’s rule was imposed in Punjab in 1951 when the state was reorganized, and the new state of Haryana was created. This was done to facilitate the reorganization and transition of state boundaries and governments.
Q53: Which of the following Articles deals with the Governor’s rule in a state?
1. Article 356
2. Article 360
3. Article 370
4. Article 380
Show Answer
Answer: 1
Explanation: Article 356 of the Indian Constitution lays down the provisions for the imposition of President’s rule or Governor’s rule in a state. This can occur if the President is satisfied that the government of the state cannot be carried on in accordance with the Constitution due to a breakdown in the constitutional machinery.
Q54: Who appoints the Governor of a state in India?
1. The President
2. The Prime Minister
3. The Chief Justice of India
4. The Parliament
Show Answer
Answer: 1
Explanation: The Governor of a state in India is appointed by the President of India. The Governor represents the President at the state level and performs various constitutional and ceremonial duties.
Q55: What is the maximum tenure of the Governor of a state in India?
1. 4 years
2. 5 years
3. 6 years
4. 7 years
Show Answer
Answer: 2
Explanation: The Governor of a state typically holds office for a term of five years from the date they assume office. This term can be extended or terminated at the discretion of the President.
Q56: Who among the following can remove the Governor of a state from office?
1. The President
2. The Prime Minister
3. The Chief Justice of India
4. The Chief Minister of the state
Show Answer
Answer: 1
Explanation: The Governor of a state can be removed from office by the President of India on various grounds, including violation of the Constitution, engaging in activities prejudicial to the national interest, or physical or mental incapacity. The removal process follows constitutional procedures.
Q57: Who is the head of the Council of Ministers in a state in India?
1. Governor
2. Chief Minister
3. Chief Secretary
4. Chief Justice
Show Answer
Answer: 2
Explanation: The Chief Minister is the head of the Council of Ministers in a state in India. The Governor appoints the Chief Minister, usually selecting the leader of the party or coalition with a majority in the Legislative Assembly, to form the government.
Q58: Who presides over the meetings of the Council of Ministers in a state in India?
1. Governor
2. Chief Minister
3. Chief Secretary
4. Chief Justice
Show Answer
Answer: 2
Explanation: The Chief Minister presides over the meetings of the Council of Ministers in a state and plays a pivotal role in the functioning of the state government. The Chief Minister is responsible for making key policy decisions, overseeing the administration, and ensuring the execution of the government’s programs and initiatives.
Q59: Who is the head of the state government bureaucracy in a state in India?
1. Governor
2. Chief Minister
3. Chief Secretary
4. Chief Justice
Show Answer
Answer: 3
Explanation: The Chief Secretary is the highest-ranking civil servant in the state government bureaucracy. The Chief Secretary collaborates closely with the Chief Minister and the Council of Ministers, assisting in policy implementation, administrative coordination, and day-to-day governance.
Q60: Which of the following statements is correct regarding the appointment of the Chief Minister in a state in India?
1. The Governor appoints the Chief Minister, and the Chief Minister selects the members of the Council of Ministers.
2. The President appoints the Chief Minister, and the Chief Minister selects the members of the Council of Ministers.
3. The Governor appoints the Chief Minister and all the members of the Council of Ministers.
4. The President appoints the Chief Minister and all the members of the Council of Ministers.
Show Answer
Answer: 1
Explanation: The Governor appoints the Chief Minister, who, in turn, selects other members of the Council of Ministers, subject to the approval of the Governor. This ensures that the Chief Minister is supported by a team responsible for specific portfolios within the government.
Q61: Which of the following statements is correct regarding the tenure of the Chief Minister in a state in India?
1. The Chief Minister holds office for a fixed term of five years.
2. The Chief Minister holds office during the pleasure of the Governor.
3. The Chief Minister holds office for a term of four years.
4. The Chief Minister holds office for a term of six years.
Show Answer
Answer: 2
Explanation: The Chief Minister holds office during the pleasure of the Governor, as long as they continue to enjoy the support of the majority in the Legislative Assembly. The Chief Minister’s tenure depends on maintaining the confidence of the assembly.
Q62: Which of the following statements is correct regarding the resignation of the Chief Minister in a state in India?
1. The Chief Minister can resign only to the Governor and not to the President.
2. The Chief Minister can resign only to the President and not to the Governor.
3. The Chief Minister can resign to either the President or the Governor.
4. The Chief Minister cannot resign; he/she can only be removed from office.
Show Answer
Answer: 3
Explanation: The Chief Minister of a state in India can choose to submit their resignation to either the President or the Governor, depending on the level of state politics involved. Typically, the Chief Minister tenders their resignation to the Governor, who then forwards it to the President for acceptance. The choice often reflects the practice and protocol established in the state.
Q63: Which of the following is NOT a qualification required to become a Chief Minister in a state in India?
1. Must be a member of the Legislative Assembly of the state
2. Must be at least 25 years of age
3. Must not hold any office of profit under the Government of India or any state government
4. Must be a natural-born citizen of India
Show Answer
Answer: 4
Explanation: To become a Chief Minister in an Indian state, being a natural-born citizen of India is not a specific qualification. Instead, the following requirements must be met: the individual must be a citizen of India, should not hold any office of profit under the Government of India or any state government, must be at least 25 years of age (for a Legislative Assembly) or 30 years of age (for a Legislative Council), and must be a member of the Legislative Assembly or Legislative Council of the state.
Q64: Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution deals with the appointment of the Chief Minister in a state in India?
1. Article 150
2. Article 160
3. Article 164
4. Article 174
Show Answer
Answer: 3
Explanation: Article 164 of the Indian Constitution deals with the appointment of the Chief Minister in a state. It stipulates that the Chief Minister shall be appointed by the Governor, and the other ministers shall be appointed by the Governor on the advice of the Chief Minister. This provision outlines the process by which the head of the state government and their cabinet are selected.
Q65: Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution deals with the Council of Ministers in a state in India?
1. Article 142
2. Article 152
3. Article 162
4. Article 163
Show Answer
Answer: 4
Explanation: Article 163 of the Indian Constitution addresses the Council of Ministers in a state. It establishes that the Council of Ministers aids and advises the Governor in the exercise of their functions, except in cases where the Governor is required to act in their discretion. This article delineates the advisory role of the Council of Ministers in state governance.
Q66: Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution deals with the appointment of an Advocate General for a state?
1. Article 152
2. Article 165
3. Article 172
4. Article 183
Show Answer
Answer: 2
Explanation: Article 165 of the Indian Constitution pertains to the appointment of an Advocate General for a state. It specifies that the Governor of a state appoints the Advocate General, who serves as the highest legal officer representing the state government in legal matters and provides legal counsel to the state.
Q67: What is the role of the Advocate General in a state in India?
1. To advise the Governor on legal matters
2. To represent the state government in legal proceedings
3. To interpret the Constitution for the state government
4. To review the decisions of the High Court of the state
Show Answer
Answer: 2
Explanation: The primary role of the Advocate General in a state is to represent the state government in legal proceedings. They serve as the top law officer of the state, offering legal advice, representing the state’s interests in legal matters, and ensuring the state’s adherence to the rule of law.
Q68: Which of the following is NOT a qualification required to become an Advocate General for a state in India?
1. Must be a citizen of India
2. Must be qualified to be appointed as a Judge of a High Court
3. Must have practised as an advocate in a High Court for at least ten years
4. Must be a member of the Legislative Assembly of the state
Show Answer
Answer: 4
Explanation: Being a member of the Legislative Assembly of the state is not a specific qualification required to become an Advocate General. Instead, the Advocate General must fulfill the following criteria: be a citizen of India, be qualified to be appointed as a Judge of a High Court, and have practiced as an advocate in a High Court for at least ten years. These qualifications ensure the Advocate General possesses the necessary legal expertise.
Q69: In which year was the National Development Council (NDC) set up in India?
1. 1950
2. 1951
3. 1952
4. 1953
Show Answer
Answer: 2
Explanation: The National Development Council (NDC) was established in India in 1951. It serves as a consultative body that brings together representatives from the Central and State governments, as well as experts, to discuss and deliberate on development-related issues and to formulate development plans for the country. The NDC plays a crucial role in the nation’s development planning.
Q70: Which of the following is NOT a subject of the National Development Council (NDC)?
1. Formulation of the plan
2. Evaluation of the progress of the plan
3. Consideration of national and international economic developments
4. Coordination of the Centre-state economic and financial policies
Show Answer
Answer: 3
Explanation: While the National Development Council (NDC) addresses various aspects of development planning, including economic development, its primary subjects typically revolve around the formulation of development plans, the evaluation of plan progress, and the coordination of economic and financial policies between the Centre and the states.
Q71: Who is the chairman of the National Development Council (NDC) in India?
1. The President of India
2. The Vice-President of India
3. The Prime Minister of India
4. The Deputy Chairman of the Planning Commission
Show Answer
Answer: 3
Explanation: The Prime Minister of India holds the position of ex-officio chairman of the National Development Council (NDC), reflecting the Council’s central role in coordinating development planning efforts at the national level.
Q72: Which of the following statements is correct regarding the National Development Council (NDC) in India?
1. The NDC is a statutory body established by an act of Parliament.
2. The NDC is a constitutional body created by the Indian Constitution.
3. The NDC is a non-constitutional and non-statutory body.
4. The NDC has no role in the formulation of Five-Year Plans in India.
Show Answer
Answer: 3
Explanation: The National Development Council (NDC) is a non-constitutional and non-statutory body. It is a forum for discussing and formulating development plans and policies, but it lacks a specific legal basis in the Indian Constitution or a parliamentary act. It operates through executive orders and agreements.
Q73: Which of the following bodies was set up as an extra-constitutional body?
1. National Development Council (NDC)
2. Planning Commission
3. Finance Commission
4. Election Commission
Show Answer
Answer: 2
Explanation: The Planning Commission, an extra-constitutional body in India, was not established by a provision in the Indian Constitution. Instead, it was formed by an executive resolution of the Government of India, providing a platform for planning and coordination of development efforts.
Answer: 2
Explanation: The Planning Commission, an extra-constitutional body in India, was not established by a provision in the Indian Constitution. Instead, it was formed by an executive resolution of the Government of India, providing a platform for planning and coordination of development efforts.
Show Answer
Answer: 1
Explanation: One of the key functions of the Planning Commission was to execute development projects in India. It played a significant role in planning and implementing various development projects and programs aimed at economic and social development.
Q75: Which of the following statements is correct regarding the abolition of the Planning Commission in India?
1. . The Planning Commission was abolished in 2014 and replaced by NITI Aayog.
2. The Planning Commission was abolished in 2015 and replaced by NITI Aayog.
3. The Planning Commission is still functioning, and NITI Aayog was created as a separate body.
4. The Planning Commission was abolished in 2014, and no replacement body was established.
Show Answer
Answer: 2
Explanation: The Planning Commission was dissolved on January 1, 2015, and was replaced by the National Institution for Transforming India (NITI Aayog). NITI Aayog functions as a policy think tank for the Government of India and is responsible for formulating strategies and action plans for the country’s development.
Q76: Which of the following statements is correct regarding the NITI Aayog in India?
1. The NITI Aayog is a constitutional body established by an act of Parliament.
2. The NITI Aayog is a statutory body established by an executive resolution of the Government of India.
3. The NITI Aayog is a non-constitutional and non-statutory body.
4. The NITI Aayog is a constitutional body established by an amendment to the Indian Constitution.
Show Answer
Answer: 3
Explanation: Similar to the NDC and the Planning Commission, the National Institution for Transforming India (NITI Aayog) is a non-constitutional and non-statutory body. It was established through an executive resolution of the Government of India and does not derive its legal authority from the Indian Constitution or a parliamentary act. NITI Aayog focuses on policy formulation and development planning in the country.
Q77: Who is the chairman of the NITI Aayog in India?
1. The President of India
2. The Vice-President of India
3. The Prime Minister of India
4. The Deputy Chairman of the Planning Commission
Show Answer
Answer: 3
Explanation: The Prime Minister of India serves as the ex-officio chairman of the National Institution for Transforming India (NITI Aayog), reflecting the dual role of the Prime Minister as the head of the government and the leader of the policy think tank.
Q78: Which of the following is NOT a function of the NITI Aayog in India?
1. Formulation of Five-Year Plans
2. Formulation of long-term policies and programs
3. Monitoring and evaluation of government programs
4. Providing strategic and technical advice to the Central and State governments
Show Answer
Answer: 1
Explanation: The formulation of Five-Year Plans was indeed a function of the Planning Commission and not the responsibility of NITI Aayog. After the Planning Commission’s abolition, the task of formulating such plans was assumed by various ministries and departments of the Indian government.
Q79: Which of the following statements is correct regarding the Planning Commission and the NITI Aayog in India?
1. The Planning Commission had a centralised planning approach, while the NITI Aayog follows a decentralised planning approach.
2. The Planning Commission had a decentralised planning approach, while the NITI Aayog follows a centralised planning approach.
3. Both the Planning Commission and the NITI Aayog follow a centralised planning approach.
4. Both the Planning Commission and the NITI Aayog follow a decentralised planning approach.
Show Answer
Answer: 2
Explanation: The Planning Commission adopted a centralized planning approach, wherein it allocated funds and resources to states and monitored plan implementation at both the central and state levels. In contrast, NITI Aayog follows a decentralized planning approach. It offers strategic guidance and technical advice to states and union territories to develop their own unique development plans based on their specific requirements and resources.
Q80: Which of the following is NOT a constitutional body in India?
1. Election Commission
2. Finance Commission
3. Planning Commission
4. National Human Rights Commission
Show Answer
Answer: 3
Explanation: Both the Planning Commission and NITI Aayog are non-constitutional bodies, meaning they are not created or governed by specific constitutional provisions. They operate as executive entities under government orders and function as advisory and policy formulation bodies.
Q81: Which of the following bodies in India is responsible for the conduct of elections to the Lok Sabha and state legislative assemblies?
1. Election Commission
2. Finance Commission
3. Planning Commission
4. National Human Rights Commission
Show Answer
Answer: 1
Explanation: The Election Commission of India is an independent and autonomous body responsible for overseeing the conduct of elections to the Lok Sabha (House of the People) and state legislative assemblies. It plays a critical role in ensuring free and fair elections in the country.
Q82: Which of the following is NOT a function of the Election Commission of India?
1. Delimitation of constituencies
2. Preparation of electoral rolls
3. Conduct of elections to the Rajya Sabha
4. Recognition of political parties and allotment of symbols
Show Answer
Answer: 1
Explanation: Election commission prepares electoral rolls, Conducts elections to the Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha. However, the delimitation of constutuencies is done by the Delimitation Commission
Q83: Who appoints the Chief Election Commissioner and Election Commissioners of India?
1. The President of India
2. The Prime Minister of India
3. The Vice-President of India
4. The Chief Justice of India
Show Answer
Answer: 1
Explanation: The Chief Election Commissioner and Election Commissioners of India are appointed by the President of India. These appointments are crucial to ensuring the impartiality and independence of the Election Commission.
Q84: Which of the following statements is correct regarding the tenure of the Chief Election Commissioner and Election Commissioners of India?
1. They hold office for a fixed term of six years.
2. They hold office during the pleasure of the Prime Minister.
3. They hold office for a term of five years or until the age of 65, whichever is earlier.
4. They hold office for a term of six years or until the age of 62, whichever is earlier.
Show Answer
Answer: 3
Explanation: The Chief Election Commissioner and Election Commissioners hold office for a term of six years or until they reach the age of 65, whichever occurs earlier. This fixed term helps maintain the autonomy and stability of the Election Commission.
Q85: In which year was the Election Commission of India established?
1. 1947
2. 1948
3. 1950
4. 1951
Show Answer
Answer: 4
Explanation: The Election Commission of India was established in 1951, following the first general elections held in 1951-1952.
Q86: Which of the following statements is correct regarding the composition of the Election Commission of India?
1. The Election Commission consists of the President, the Vice-President, and the Chief Justice of India.
2. The Election Commission consists of the Chief Election Commissioner and four Election Commissioners.
3. The Election Commission consists of the Chief Election Commissioner and three Election Commissioners.
4. The Election Commission consists of the Chief Election Commissioner and two Election Commissioners.
Show Answer
Answer: 3
Explanation: The Election Commission of India consists of the Chief Election Commissioner and three Election Commissioners.
Q87: Which of the following is a function of the Finance Commission of India?
1. Conducting financial audits of all government departments
2. Allocating funds to the states for various schemes and programs
3. Formulating the annual budget of the Union government
4. Investigating cases of corruption in government organisations
Show Answer
Answer: 2
Explanation: One of the primary functions of the Finance Commission of India is to allocate funds to states from the divisible pool of taxes collected by the Central government. The Finance Commission recommends the distribution of these funds based on specific criteria like population, area, and income disparities among states.
Q88: Who appoints the Chairman and members of the Finance Commission of India?
1. The President of India
2. The Prime Minister of India
3. The Chief Justice of India
4. The Chief Election Commissioner
Show Answer
Answer: 1
Explanation: The Chairman and members of the Finance Commission of India are appointed by the President of India, ensuring their impartiality and independence.
Q89: What is the tenure of the Finance Commission of India?
1. Two years
2. Three years
3. Four years
4. Five years
Show Answer
Answer: 3
Explanation: The Finance Commission is appointed for a term of four years, after which a new Commission is constituted to continue the process of allocating funds to states.
Q90: Which of the following statements is correct regarding the status of the recommendations made by the Finance Commission of India?
1. The recommendations of the Finance Commission are binding on the Central and State governments.
2. The recommendations of the Finance Commission are advisory in nature, and the government may choose to accept or reject them.
3. The recommendations of the Finance Commission are enforceable by the Supreme Court.
4. The recommendations of the Finance Commission are subject to the approval of the Parliament.
Show Answer
Answer: 2
Explanation: The recommendations of the Finance Commission are advisory in nature. While they carry substantial weight, the government has the discretion to accept or reject them. These recommendations help maintain a fiscal balance between the Center and the states.
Q91: Which of the following is NOT a criteria for the distribution of funds by the Finance Commission to the states in India?
1. Population
2. Area
3. Fiscal Deficit
4. Income Distance
Show Answer
Answer: 3
Explanation: Fiscal Deficit, which refers to the difference between total government revenue and expenditure, is not a criterion for the distribution of funds by the Finance Commission to the states. Instead, the Commission primarily considers factors such as population, geographical area, and income disparities when making recommendations for fund allocation.
Q92: Which of the following is a discretionary power of the President of India?
1. The power to grant pardons and reprieves
2. The power to appoint the Prime Minister
3. The power to dissolve the Lok Sabha
4. The power to dismiss a state government
Show Answer
Answer: 1
Explanation: The power to grant pardons, reprieves, respites, or remissions of punishment is a discretionary power of the President of India, as outlined in Article 72 of the Indian Constitution. This authority allows the President to review and grant clemency in specific cases, considering factors such as justice and compassion.
Q93: Which of the following is a discretionary power of the Governor of a state in India?
1. The power to grant pardons and reprieves
2. The power to appoint the Chief Minister
3. The power to dissolve the Rajya Sabha
4. The power to dismiss the President of India
Show Answer
Answer: 1
Explanation: The power to grant pardons, reprieves, respites, or remissions of punishment is a discretionary power of the Governor of a state. It is derived from Article 161 of the Indian Constitution.
Q94: Which of the following is a discretionary power of the Chief Justice of India?
1. The power to grant pardons and reprieves
2. The power to appoint the President of India
3. The power to dissolve the Lok Sabha
4. The power to appoint judges to the Supreme Court
Show Answer
Answer: 4
Explanation: The Chief Justice of India does not possess discretionary power to recommend the appointment of judges to the Supreme Court. Instead, appointments to the Supreme Court are made through a consultative process involving the Chief Justice, the President of India, and the Council of Ministers. The President appoints judges based on the recommendations of the Chief Justice and the collegium of senior judges.
Q95: Which of the following is a discretionary power of the Vice-President of India?
1. The power to grant pardons and reprieves
2. The power to appoint the President of India
3. The power to dissolve the Lok Sabha
4. The power to preside over the Rajya Sabha
Show Answer
Answer: 4
Explanation: The Vice-President of India serves as the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha, with the role of presiding over its proceedings. In the absence or incapacitation of the President, the Vice-President assumes the functions of the President. However, these roles do not involve discretionary powers; they are constitutionally defined responsibilities.
Q96: Which of the following statements is correct regarding the powers of the President of India?
1. The President has the power to pardon all offences, including those under military law.
2. The President has the power to grant pardons only in cases of offences against Union laws.
3. The President does not have the power to grant pardons and reprieves.
4. The President has the power to grant pardons only in cases of offences against state laws.
Show Answer
Answer: 1
Explanation: The President of India has the authority to grant pardons, reprieves, respites, or remissions of punishment for all offences, including those under military law. This power is granted by Article 72 of the Indian Constitution. However, the President’s power does not extend to cases of impeachment, which follow a separate process.
Q97: Which of the following statements is correct regarding the pardoning power of the President of India?
1. The President can grant pardons before a person is convicted of an offence.
2. The President can grant pardons only after a person has been convicted and sentenced for an offence.
3. The President can grant pardons only in cases of offences against Union laws.
4. The President cannot grant pardons for offences committed by members of the armed forces.
Show Answer
Answer: 2
Explanation: The President of India can exercise the power to grant pardons, reprieves, respites, or remissions of punishment after a person has been convicted and sentenced for an offence. This power is discretionary and can be applied to both Union and state laws, as well as offences committed by members of the armed forces.
Q98: Which of the following statements is correct regarding the pardoning power of the Governor of a state in India?
1. The Governor can grant pardons before a person is convicted of an offence.
2. The Governor can grant pardons only after a person has been convicted and sentenced for an offence.
3. The Governor can grant pardons only in cases of offences against Union laws.
4. The Governor cannot grant pardons for offences committed by members of the armed forces.
Show Answer
Answer: 2
Explanation: Similar to the President, the Governor of a state can grant pardons, reprieves, respites, or remissions of punishment after a person has been convicted and sentenced for an offence. The Governor’s power is discretionary and can be used for both Union and state laws, as well as offences committed by members of the armed forces.
Q99: Which of the following statements is correct regarding the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India?
1. The Supreme Court has exclusive jurisdiction over all disputes between the Union government and the state governments.
2. The Supreme Court has exclusive jurisdiction over all disputes between the President of India and the state governments.
3. The Supreme Court has exclusive jurisdiction over all disputes relating to the interpretation of the Indian Constitution.
4. The Supreme Court has exclusive jurisdiction over all civil disputes exceeding the value of Rs. 50 lakh.
Show Answer
Answer: 3
Explanation: The Supreme Court of India holds exclusive jurisdiction over disputes related to the interpretation, implementation, or enforcement of the provisions of the Indian Constitution. It serves as the highest authority in the country for interpreting and safeguarding the Constitution’s integrity.
Q100: Which of the following is a condition for acquiring Indian citizenship by birth?
1. The person must be born in India only.
2. The person must be born in India or of Indian parents outside India.
3. The person must be born in India and have at least one parent who is a citizen of India.
4. The person must be born in India and have both parents who are citizens of India.
Show Answer
Answer: 3
Explanation: To acquire Indian citizenship by birth, the individual must be born in India and have at least one parent who is a citizen of India. This principle is enshrined in the Citizenship Act of 1955.
Q101: Which of the following is a condition for acquiring Indian citizenship by descent?
1. The person must be born in India and have at least one parent who is a citizen of India.
2. The person must be born in India or of Indian parents outside India.
3. The person must be born outside India and have at least one parent who is a citizen of India.
4. The person must be born in India and have both parents who are citizens of India.
Show Answer
Answer: 3
Explanation: To acquire Indian citizenship by descent, the person must be born outside India but have at least one parent who is a citizen of India. This provision allows individuals of Indian origin born abroad to claim Indian citizenship through their parentage.
Q102: Which of the following is a condition for acquiring Indian citizenship by registration?
1. The person must have resided in India for at least ten years.
2. The person must have resided in India for at least seven years.
3. The person must have resided in India for at least five years.
4. The person must have resided in India for at least three years.
Show Answer
Answer: 3
Explanation: To acquire Indian citizenship by registration, the person must have resided in India for at least five years. This method enables certain individuals, like foreign spouses of Indian citizens, to acquire Indian citizenship.
Q103: Which of the following is a condition for acquiring Indian citizenship by naturalisation?
1. The person must have resided in India for at least ten years.
2. The person must have resided in India for at least seven years.
3. The person must have resided in India for at least five years.
4. The person must have resided in India for at least three years.
Show Answer
Answer: 1
Explanation: To acquire Indian citizenship by naturalization, the person must have resided in India for at least ten years. This route allows foreign nationals who have lived in India for an extended period to become Indian citizens.
Q104: Which of the following statements is correct regarding dual citizenship in India?
1. India allows dual citizenship for all its citizens.
2. India does not allow dual citizenship for any of its citizens.
3. India allows dual citizenship for Persons of Indian Origin (PIO) and Overseas Citizens of India (OCI).
4. India allows dual citizenship only for citizens who have acquired citizenship of the United States.
Show Answer
Answer: 3
Explanation: India does not generally allow dual citizenship. However, it offers Overseas Citizens of India (OCI) and Persons of Indian Origin (PIO) status, which provide certain privileges and rights to those with Indian ancestry. Dual citizenship implies holding citizenship of India and another country simultaneously.
Q105: Which of the following is correct regarding the rights of Overseas Citizens of India (OCI)?
1. OCIs have the right to vote in all Indian elections.
2. OCIs have the right to contest for the post of President of India.
3. OCIs have the right to work in India without any restrictions.
4. OCIs have the right to hold public offices in India.
Show Answer
Answer: 3
Explanation: Overseas Citizens of India (OCI) have the right to work in India without restrictions. While they enjoy many benefits, including travel and residence rights, they are not entitled to vote, hold public offices, or run for the post of President of India.
Q106: Which of the following statements is correct regarding the eligibility criteria to become the President of India?
1. The person must be a citizen of India and at least 35 years of age.
2. The person must be a citizen of India and at least 25 years of age.
3. The person must be a citizen of India and at least 30 years of age.
4. The person must be a citizen of India and at least 40 years of age.
Show Answer
Answer: 1
Explanation: To become the President of India, an individual must be a citizen of India and be at least 35 years of age. This eligibility criteria are established in the Indian Constitution.
Q107: Which of the following statements is correct regarding the eligibility criteria to become the Vice-President of India?
1. The person must be a citizen of India and at least 35 years of age.
2. The person must be a citizen of India and at least 25 years of age.
3. The person must be a citizen of India and at least 30 years of age.
4. The person must be a citizen of India and at least 45 years of age.
Show Answer
Answer: 1
Explanation: To become the Vice-President of India, the person must be a citizen of India and at least 35 years of age.
Q108: Which of the following statements is correct regarding the electoral college for the election of the President of India?
1. The electoral college consists of elected members of both houses of Parliament and the Legislative Assemblies of states.
2. The electoral college consists of elected members of both houses of Parliament only.
3. The electoral college consists of elected members of the Lok Sabha and nominated members of the Rajya Sabha.
4. The electoral college consists of elected members of the Rajya Sabha and nominated members of the Lok Sabha.
Show Answer
Answer: 1
Explanation: The electoral college for the election of the President of India consists of elected members of both houses of Parliament and the Legislative Assemblies of states. The nominated members of both houses of Parliament and state Legislative Assemblies are not part of the electoral college.
Q109: Which of the following statements is correct regarding the electoral college for the election of the Vice-President of India?
1. The electoral college consists of elected members of both houses of Parliament and the Legislative Assemblies of states.
2. The electoral college consists of elected members of both houses of Parliament only.
3. The electoral college consists of elected members of the Lok Sabha and nominated members of the Rajya Sabha.
4. The electoral college consists of elected members of the Rajya Sabha and nominated members of the Lok Sabha.
Show Answer
Answer: 2
Explanation: The electoral college for the election of the Vice-President of India consists of elected members of both houses of Parliament only. The members of state Legislative Assemblies are not part of the electoral college for the Vice-President’s election.
Q110: Which of the following is NOT a function of the Vice-President of India?
1. The Vice-President is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
2. The Vice-President acts as the President of India in case of the President’s absence or incapacity.
3. The Vice-President represents India in international forums and meetings.
4. The Vice-President performs the functions of the President during any period of vacancy in the President’s office.
Show Answer
Answer: 3
Explanation: The Vice-President of India does not represent India in international forums and meetings. This role is carried out by the President of India or the Prime Minister, depending on the nature of the event.
Q111: Which of the following statements is correct regarding the impeachment process of the President of India?
1. The impeachment process can be initiated by a resolution passed by the Lok Sabha and supported by a simple majority of its members.
2. The impeachment process can be initiated by a resolution passed by the Rajya Sabha and supported by a two-thirds majority of its members.
3. The impeachment process can be initiated by a resolution passed by either house of Parliament and supported by a two-thirds majority of its members.
4. The impeachment process can be initiated by a resolution passed by both houses of Parliament and supported by a two-thirds majority of their members.
Show Answer
Answer: 4
Explanation: The impeachment process of the President of India can be initiated by a resolution passed by either house of Parliament (Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha) and supported by a two-thirds majority of its total membership. The resolution must then be passed by the other house with a two-thirds majority as well.
Q112: Which of the following is NOT a fundamental duty of citizens as per the Indian Constitution?
1. To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals
2. To protect and improve the natural environment
3. To promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood among all citizens
4. To participate in the governance of the country
Show Answer
Answer: 4
Explanation: Participation in the governance of the country is not a fundamental duty of citizens as per the Indian Constitution. Fundamental duties are outlined in Article 51A of the Constitution, and they primarily focus on promoting respect for the nation, environment, and fellow citizens.
Q113: Which of the following is a fundamental duty of citizens as per the Indian Constitution?
1. To criticise the policies and programs of the government
2. To pay taxes regularly to the government
3. To follow the orders of the President of India
4. To defend the country and render national service when required
Show Answer
Answer: 4
Explanation: One of the fundamental duties of citizens as per the Indian Constitution is to defend the country and render national service when required.
Q114: Which of the following statements is correct regarding the directive principles of state policy in India?
1. The directive principles are enforceable in courts, and citizens can seek legal remedies if they are violated by the government.
2. The directive principles are not enforceable in courts, but they are fundamental in the governance of the country.
3. The directive principles are binding on the government, and any violation can lead to legal action against the government.
4. The directive principles are not considered while formulating government policies and programs.
Show Answer
Answer: 2
Explanation: The directive principles of state policy in India are not enforceable in courts. However, they are fundamental in the governance of the country, and the government is expected to consider them while formulating policies and programs.
Q115: Which of the following statements is correct regarding the relationship between fundamental rights and directive principles of state policy in India?
1. Fundamental rights and directive principles are separate and independent of each other, and one cannot influence the other.
2. Fundamental rights and directive principles are complementary to each other, and the state must strive to achieve a balance between them.
3. Fundamental rights take precedence over directive principles, and the latter can be overridden if there is a conflict between the two.
4. Directive principles take precedence over fundamental rights, and the latter can be overridden if there is a conflict between the two.
Show Answer
Answer: 2
Explanation: Fundamental rights and directive principles of state policy are complementary to each other, and the state is expected to strive to achieve a balance between the two while formulating policies and laws. If there is a conflict between fundamental rights and directive principles, the state must make a reasonable effort to reconcile them.
Q116: Which of the following statements is correct regarding the concept of the welfare state in India?
1. India follows a laissez-faire economic policy, and the state does not intervene in economic matters.
2. India aims to establish a welfare state where the government takes an active role in promoting the well-being of its citizens.
3. India follows a communist economic model, and the means of production are owned by the state.
4. India does not have any specific policy regarding the welfare of its citizens.
Show Answer
Answer: 2
Explanation: India follows the concept of a welfare state where the government plays an active role in promoting the social and economic well-being of its citizens. It involves providing various social services, public facilities, and economic opportunities to ensure a better quality of life for the people.
Q117: Which of the following statements is correct regarding the freedom of speech and expression in India?
1. The freedom of speech and expression is an absolute right, and there are no reasonable restrictions imposed on it.
2. The freedom of speech and expression can be restricted on grounds of public order, defamation, and incitement to an offence.
3. The freedom of speech and expression can be restricted only during a state of emergency.
4. The freedom of speech and expression does not apply to government employees and members of the armed forces.
Show Answer
Answer: 2
Explanation: The freedom of speech and expression in India is not an absolute right. It can be restricted on grounds of public order, defamation, incitement to an offence, and certain other reasonable grounds as specified in Article 19(2) of the Indian Constitution.
Q118: Which of the following statements is correct regarding the right to life and personal liberty in India?
1. The right to life and personal liberty is an absolute right and cannot be restricted under any circumstances.
2. The right to life and personal liberty can be restricted during a state of emergency.
3. The right to life and personal liberty can be restricted only for individuals accused of committing heinous crimes.
4. The right to life and personal liberty can be restricted only through the due process of law.
Show Answer
Answer: 4
Explanation: The right to life and personal liberty in India is not an absolute right. It can be restricted, but only through the due process of law, as per Article 21 of the Indian Constitution. This means that any deprivation of life or personal liberty must be done in a fair and just manner as established by law.
Q119: Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding the right to education in India?
1. The right to education is a fundamental right guaranteed to all Indian citizens under Article 21 of the Constitution.
2. The right to education is a legal right, and any violation can lead to legal action against the government.
3. The right to education is a directive principle of state policy, and the government must strive to achieve universal education.
4. The right to education is applicable only to children between the ages of 6 and 14 years.
Show Answer
Answer: 3
Explanation: The right to education in India is a not directive principle of state policy. It is a fundamental right under article 21 A. It is the duty of the state to provide free and compulsory education to children up to the age of 14 years, and the government must strive to achieve universal education for all citizens.
Q120: Which of the following statements is correct regarding the right to information in India?
1. The right to information is a fundamental right guaranteed to all Indian citizens under Article 19 of the Constitution.
2. The right to information is a legal right, and any violation can lead to legal action against the government.
3. The right to information is a directive principle of state policy, and the government must strive to promote transparency and accountability.
4. The right to information is applicable only to government employees and not to the general public.
Show Answer
Answer: 2
Explanation: The right to information is a legal right, and any violation can lead to legal action against the government.
Q121: Which of the following is a statutory body in India?
1. Planning Commission of India
2. Finance Commission of India
3. Election Commission of India
4. National Human Rights Commission (NHRC)
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Answer: 4
Explanation: The National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) is a statutory body in India established under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993. It is responsible for the protection and promotion of human rights in the country.
Q122: Which of the following is a constitutional body in India?
1. Planning Commission of India
2. Finance Commission of India
3. Election Commission of India
4. National Human Rights Commission (NHRC)
Show Answer
Answer: 3
Explanation: The Election Commission of India is a constitutional body in India established under Article 324 of the Constitution. It is responsible for the conduct of free and fair elections in the country.
Q123: Which of the following is a non-constitutional body in India?
1. Planning Commission of India
2. Finance Commission of India
3. Election Commission of India
4. National Human Rights Commission (NHRC)
Show Answer
Answer: 1
Explanation: The Planning Commission of India was a non-constitutional body. However, it was replaced by the NITI Aayog (National Institution for Transforming India) in 2015, which is also a non-constitutional body.
Q124: Which of the following is a constitutional body in India?
1. Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI)
2. Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG)
3. National Commission for Women (NCW)
4. National Commission for Scheduled Castes (NCSC)
Show Answer
Answer: 2
Explanation: The Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG) is a constitutional body in India. It is responsible for auditing the accounts of the Central and State governments and ensuring transparency and accountability in financial matters.
Q125: Which of the following is a non-constitutional body in India?
1. Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI)
2. Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG)
3. National Commission for Women (NCW)
4. National Commission for Scheduled Castes (NCSC)
Show Answer
Answer: 1
Explanation: The Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) is a non-constitutional body in India. It is the premier investigative agency of the country, established by the Central Government through a resolution.
Q126: Which of the following is a non-constitutional body in India?
1. Election Commission of India
2. Supreme Court of India
3. Union Public Service Commission (UPSC)
4. National Human Rights Commission (NHRC)
Show Answer
Answer: 3
Explanation: The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) is a non-constitutional body in India. It is responsible for conducting civil services examinations and making appointments to various civil services of the Central government.
Q127: Which of the following is a statutory body in India?
1. Planning Commission of India
2. Finance Commission of India
3. National Commission for Women (NCW)
4. National Commission for Scheduled Castes (NCSC)
Show Answer
Answer: 3
Explanation: The National Commission for Women (NCW) is a statutory body in India. It was established under the National Commission for Women Act, 1990, to protect and promote the rights of women in the country.
Q128: Which of the following is a constitutional body in India?
1. National Commission for Scheduled Castes (NCSC)
2. Central Vigilance Commission (CVC)
3. National Human Rights Commission (NHRC)
4. NITI Aayog (National Institution for Transforming India)
Show Answer
Answer: 1
Explanation: The National Commission for Scheduled Castes (NCSC) is a constitutional body in India. It is responsible for safeguarding the interests of Scheduled Castes and ensuring their welfare and protection.
Q129: Which of the following is a non-constitutional body in India?
1. National Commission for Scheduled Castes (NCSC)
2. Central Vigilance Commission (CVC)
3. National Human Rights Commission (NHRC)
4. NITI Aayog (National Institution for Transforming India)
Show Answer
Answer: 2
Explanation: The National Commission for Scheduled Castes (NCSC) is a constitutional body in India. It is established under Article 338 of the Indian Constitution. The NCSC is responsible for safeguarding and promoting the rights and interests of Scheduled Castes (also known as Dalits) in the country. It works to ensure that these marginalized communities are protected from social discrimination, exploitation, and atrocities. The Commission has the authority to investigate and inquire into specific complaints and issues related to the rights and welfare of Scheduled Castes and recommend necessary remedial actions to the government. NCSC is a vital institution in promoting social justice and equality in India.
Q130: Which of the following is a constitutional body in India?
1. National Commission for Women (NCW)
2. Central Vigilance Commission (CVC)
3. National Human Rights Commission (NHRC)
4. NITI Aayog (National Institution for Transforming India)
Show Answer
Answer: 3
Explanation: The National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) is a constitutional body in India. It is responsible for the protection and promotion of human rights in the country.
