1. Which amendment of the Constitution added the 10th schedule?
- 24th Amendment Act
- 34th Amendment Act
- 52nd Amendment Act
- 61st Amendment Act
Show Answer
Answer: 52nd Amendment Act
The 10th Schedule of the Indian Constitution, popularly known as the Anti-Defection Law, was introduced by the 52nd Amendment Act of 1985. This schedule was included to address the problem of legislators switching political affiliations frequently. It provides for the disqualification of members of Parliament and state legislatures who defect from their original political parties. The law aims to promote party discipline and prevent political defections.
2. Via which of the following amendments was the term “Socialist” inserted in the Preamble of the Indian Constitution?
- 24th Amendment Act
- 42nd Amendment Act
- 49th Amendment Act
- 52nd Amendment Act
Show Answer
Answer: 42nd Amendment Act
The term “Socialist” was added to the Preamble of the Indian Constitution by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976. Along with “Socialist,” this amendment also introduced the terms “Secular” and “Integrity” into the Preamble. These additions reflected the changing socio-political landscape in India and emphasized the country’s commitment to socialist principles, secularism, and maintaining its territorial integrity.
3. Which among the following constitutional amendment acts reduced the age of voting from 21 years to 18 years?
- 59th Amendment Act
- 24th Amendment Act
- 61st Amendment Act
- 62nd Amendment Act
Show Answer
Answer: 61st Amendment Act
The 61st Amendment Act of 1989 lowered the voting age for elections to the Lok Sabha and state legislative assemblies from 21 years to 18 years. This significant amendment expanded the scope of political participation for Indian youth, allowing them to vote and have a say in the country’s governance from a younger age.
4. 73rd Amendment of the Constitution of India is related to which among the following?
- Education
- Townships
- Municipalities
- Panchayats
Show Answer
Answer: Panchayats
The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, enacted in 1992, was a landmark development for India’s Panchayati Raj System. It led to the establishment of Panchayati Raj Institutions at the village, intermediate, and district levels in most states, devolving powers and responsibilities to local self-government bodies. This amendment aimed to promote grassroots democracy and decentralize governance.
5. In which year was the Dogri language included in the eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution?
- 2001
- 2002
- 2003
- 2004
Show Answer
Answer: 2003
The Ninety-Second Amendment Act of 2003 added the Dogri language to the Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution. This inclusion recognized Dogri as one of India’s officially recognized languages, bringing the total number of such languages to 22.
6. In which year was the Constitution of India amended for the first time?
- 1950
- 1951
- 1952
- 1953
Show Answer
Answer: 1951
The Constitution (First Amendment) Act of 1951 marked the first amendment to the Indian Constitution. It introduced several changes, primarily focused on provisions related to Fundamental Rights and other aspects. This amendment was necessary to address various issues and ambiguities that arose after the adoption of the original Constitution.
7. Which among the following amendments of the Constitution of India fully secured the constitutional validity of zamindari abolition laws?
- 1st
- 2nd
- 3rd
- 4th
Show Answer
Answer: 1st
The First Constitutional Amendment Act, 1951, introduced the Ninth Schedule to the Constitution, securing the constitutional validity of zamindari abolition laws and other land reform measures. These laws were included in the Ninth Schedule to protect them from judicial review and to accelerate the process of agrarian reforms.
8. Which amendment of the Constitution is related to the reorganisation of states on a linguistic basis?
- 1st
- 7th
- 8th
- 15th
Show Answer
Answer: 7th
The 7th Amendment of the Indian Constitution was a pivotal step in the reorganization of states based on linguistic lines. This amendment was essential to implement the recommendations of the States Reorganisation Commission and to create a new map of states in India, abolishing the existing four-fold categorization and establishing 14 states and 6 union territories.
9. The territories of Goa, Daman & Diu were incorporated into the Indian Constitution by which amendment bill?
- 10th Amendment 1961
- 12th Amendment 1962
- 14th Amendment 1962
- 11th Amendment 1962
Show Answer
Answer: 12th Amendment 1962
The Twelfth Constitutional Amendment Act, 1962, was instrumental in incorporating the territories of Goa, Daman, and Diu into the Indian Union. This amendment marked an important chapter in India’s history as it completed the integration of these former Portuguese colonies.
10. Free & Compulsory education to all children from 6-14 years of age was made a fundamental right by which of the following amendments?
- 82nd
- 83rd
- 84th
- 86th
Show Answer
Answer: 86th
The Eighty-sixth Amendment Act, 2002, made elementary education a fundamental right. It added Article 21-A to the Constitution, declaring that the State shall provide free and compulsory education to all children of the age of six to fourteen years.
Q11: Among the following amendments of the Constitution of India, which accorded precedence to Directive Principles over Fundamental Rights?
1. 25th
2. 42nd
3. 59th
4. 44th
Show Answer
Answer: 2
Explanation: The 42nd Amendment to the Indian Constitution sought to give greater importance to the Directive Principles of State Policy by stating that no law implementing these principles could be declared unconstitutional on the grounds that it violated any of the Fundamental Rights. This amendment aimed to prioritize the socio-economic objectives outlined in the Directive Principles over individual rights in certain instances, emphasizing the broader welfare goals.
Q12: Right to vote can be placed in which among the following categories?
1. Fundamental Right
2. Constitutional Obligation
3. Fundamental Duty
4. Legal Right
Show Answer
Answer: 4
Explanation: The Right to Vote in India is a combination of both legal and constitutional rights. The Representation of the People Act, 1950, provides the legal framework for the right to vote, defining the qualifications and disqualifications for voting. It can also restrict this right under specific circumstances. Simultaneously, the Indian Constitution, through Article 326, lays down the constitutional foundation by ensuring adult suffrage for elections to the Lok Sabha and State Assemblies. Adult suffrage guarantees the right to vote to all citizens aged 18 and above, making it a constitutional right. However, it’s important to note that while the legal aspect defines the specific conditions for exercising the right to vote, the constitutional aspect establishes the fundamental principle of universal adult suffrage.
Q13: Which of the following provisions of the constitution did not come into force on November 26, 1949?
1. Provisions relating to citizenship
2. Provisions relating to elections
3. Fundamental rights
4. None of the above
Show Answer
Answer: 4
Explanation: Though the Indian Constitution formally came into force on January 26, 1950, certain provisions were made effective on January 26, 1949. These provisions relate to citizenship, elections, the Provisional Parliament, and temporary and transitional provisions. They provided the initial framework for the governance of the newly formed Republic of India.
Q14: Which among the following provisions of the Indian Constitution have been taken from the Weimar Constitution of Germany?
1. Emergency & its effects on Fundamental Rights
2. The concurrent list
3. Constitutional Amendments
4. Preamble
Show Answer
Answer: 1
Explanation: The provisions regarding the suspension of Fundamental Rights during an emergency were inspired by the Weimar Constitution of Germany. These provisions allow the government to temporarily suspend certain fundamental rights during a state of emergency to ensure the security and well-being of the nation. However, this suspension is intended to be temporary and subject to strict conditions.
Q15: To enforce the fundamental rights, which among the following court(s) has/have the authority to issue writs?
1. Only 1 (Supreme Court)
2. Only 1 & 2 (Supreme Court & High Courts)
3. Only 2 & 3 (High Courts & District Courts)
4. 1, 2 & 3 (Supreme Court, High Courts & District Courts)
Show Answer
Answer: 2
Explanation: In India, both the Supreme Court and High Courts have been empowered with Writ Jurisdiction. Further, Parliament by law can extend power to issue writs to any other courts (including local courts) for the local limits of jurisdiction of such courts.
Q16: Who among the following can suspend the fundamental rights?
1. Parliament
2. President
3. Prime Minister
4. Supreme Court
Show Answer
Answer: 2
Explanation: During a national emergency in India, which can be proclaimed under Article 352, the President can suspend or restrict the exercise of Fundamental Rights guaranteed under Article 19. However, Article 20 and Article 21 are exceptions to this suspension. Article 20 protects a person’s rights in case of conviction for offenses, and Article 21 safeguards the right to life and personal liberty. The suspension or restriction of these rights during an emergency requires parliamentary approval.
Q17: Which among the following is the most appropriate definition of Political liberty of Citizens of India?
1. Right to participate in the government and assume equal opportunity to assume the highest office
2. Right to cast a vote and participate in the election process
3. Equal opportunity to freely move in the Political territories of India
4. None of the above
Show Answer
Answer: 1
Explanation: The rights to life and personal liberty, as guaranteed by Article 21, are available to all persons in India, regardless of their nationality. This means that both citizens and non-citizens, including foreigners, are entitled to the protection of their life and personal liberty under this Article. However, other rights, such as freedom of speech and expression, are applicable only to citizens of India, including non-resident Indian citizens.
Q18: Who decides the reasonableness of the restrictions placed on Fundamental rights in India?
1. Parliament
2. Courts
3. President
4. Prime Minister
Show Answer
Answer: 2
Explanation: Fundamental Rights, though essential for the protection of individual liberties, are not absolute and can be subject to reasonable restrictions imposed by the state. These restrictions must adhere to the procedure established by law and must be reasonable and not arbitrary. The reasonableness of these restrictions is a matter decided by the courts. The courts assess whether the restrictions serve a legitimate state interest and whether they are proportionate to the need.
Q19: Which among the following fundamental rights is available to Indian Citizens but not to aliens?
1. Freedom of expression and speech
2. Equality before Law
3. Protection of life & liberty
4. None of the above
Show Answer
Answer: 4
Explanation: Following fundamental rights are available only to citizens and not to foreigners:
1. Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth (Article 15)
2. Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment (Article 16)
3. Six basic freedoms subject to reasonable restrictions (Article 19)
4. Protection of language, script, and culture of minorities (Article 29)
5. Right of minorities to establish and administer educational
institutions (Article 30)
Q20: Which among the following does not come under the Fundamental Duties of a citizen in India?
1. To protect and improve the Natural Environment
2. To develop scientific temper, humanism, and the spirit of inquiry and reform.
3. To strive towards the abolition of untouchability
4. All are included under fundamental duties
Show Answer
Answer: 4
Explanation: Untouchability was abolished and declared unconstitutional under Article 17 of the Indian Constitution. This provision recognizes the inhuman and degrading practice of untouchability as a violation of human rights. To strengthen this abolition, the Parliament passed the Untouchability (Offences) Act in 1955, which was later amended and renamed as the Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955, in 1976. These legal measures ensure that untouchability is eradicated and that the constitutional rights of all individuals, irrespective of their caste or social background, are upheld.
Q21: The Bill of Rights and Judicial Review are features of which country’s constitution?
1. USA
2. UK
3. Germany
4. Australia
Show Answer
Answer: 1
Explanation: The Bill of Rights and Judicial Review are terms primarily associated with the United States Constitution. The Bill of Rights is the first ten amendments to the U.S. Constitution, which outlines various fundamental rights and liberties. Judicial Review is a doctrine established by the U.S. Supreme Court that allows the judiciary to review the constitutionality of laws and government actions. In India, while the Fundamental Rights in the Constitution are somewhat similar to the Bill of Rights, the term Bill of Rights is not used in the Indian context. However, the concept of Judicial Review exists in India as well, enabling the judiciary to assess the constitutionality of laws and executive actions.
Q22: The writ of mandamus is available for the purpose of which of the following?
1. Enforcement of Fundamental Rights
2. Compelling a court or Judicial tribunal to exercise its jurisdiction when it has refused to exercise it
3. Directing a public official or the Government not to enforce a law which is unconstitutional
Choose from the following options:
1. Only 1 & 2
2. Only 2 & 3
3. Only 1 & 3
4. 1, 2 & 3
Show Answer
Answer: 4
Explanation: The writ of mandamus, meaning we order, is a legal remedy that can be issued by courts in various situations. It is available to compel a public official, government authority, or any other person or body to perform a legal duty that they are bound to fulfill. Mandamus ensures that public officials or entities do not act beyond their jurisdiction and are held accountable for fulfilling their legal obligations.
Q23: Which article of the Indian constitution gives an extensive original jurisdiction to the Supreme Court in regard to enforcement of Fundamental Rights?
1. Article 22
2. Article 32
3. Article 35
4. Article 37
Show Answer
Answer: 2
Explanation: Article 32 of the Indian Constitution empowers the Supreme Court with the original jurisdiction to enforce Fundamental Rights. It allows the Court to issue directions, orders, or writs, such as habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, quo warranto, and certiorari, to enforce these rights. Article 32 is a significant constitutional provision that ensures that citizens can directly approach the Supreme Court for the protection and enforcement of their Fundamental Rights.
Q24: Among the following fundamental rights, which has been subject to maximum litigation after the inauguration of the Constitution of India?
1. Right to Freedom
2. Right to Constitutional remedies
3. Right to Property
4. Right against exploitation
Show Answer
Answer: 2
Explanation: The Right to Constitutional remedies, which includes the right to approach the Supreme Court directly for the enforcement of fundamental rights, has indeed been subject to a large number of litigations. This right provides individuals with a powerful legal tool to challenge any violation of their Fundamental Rights. Consequently, the Supreme Court has heard numerous cases concerning the protection and enforcement of these rights.
Q25: Which among the following articles throws open all public places to all citizens?
1. Article 15(2)
2. Article 16(2)
3. Article 17
4. Article 18
Show Answer
Answer: 1
Explanation: Article 15(2) of the Indian Constitution is a crucial anti-discrimination provision. It prohibits discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth, or any of these in admission to educational institutions and access to public places. It is a key provision aimed at promoting equality and prohibiting discrimination.
Q26: Which of the following fundamental rights is also known to have incorporated a Necessary Evil of the Constitution of India?
1. Protection of certain rights regarding freedom of speech, etc.
2. Protection in respect of conviction for offences.
3. Protection of life and personal liberty.
4. Protection against arrest and detention in certain cases.
Show Answer
Answer: 4
Explanation: The provisions regarding preventive detention under Article 22(3) are sometimes referred to as a Necessary Evil as it allows for curtailment of liberty for reasons of State’s security, public order, etc.
Q27: Who among the following has been given the power by the Constitution of India to Impose Reasonable Restrictions on the fundamental rights?
1. President
2. Parliament
3. Supreme Court
4. Both Parliament & Supreme Court
Show Answer
Answer: 4
Explanation: Fundamental rights listed in Part III of the Indian Constitution are not absolute. They can be restricted on reasonable grounds by legislation enacted by Parliament, and such restrictions are subject to judicial review by the Supreme Court to ensure they meet the criteria of reasonableness.
Q28: Who among the following introduced the Preventive Detention Bill in 1950 in the Indian parliament?
1. Baldev Singh
2. Narahar Vishnu Gadgil
3. Sardar Patel
4. Jawaharlal Nehru
Show Answer
Answer: 3
Explanation: The Preventive Detention Bill introduced in 1950 led to the enactment of the Preventive Detention Act, 1950. This legislation provided the government with powers to detain individuals without trial in certain circumstances, and it was used as a preventive measure against threats to public safety and security.
Q29: Which among the following articles of the Constitution of India deals with Prohibition of Traffic in Human beings?
1. Article 21
2. Article 22
3. Article 23
4. Article 24
Show Answer
Answer: 3
Explanation: Article 23 of the Indian Constitution prohibits traffic in human beings and forced labor. It bans practices like begar (forced labor) and human trafficking, imposing penalties for violations. However, the State can impose compulsory service for public purposes as long as there is no discrimination based on religion, race, caste, or class.
Q30: Right to Safety, Right to information, Right to Choose, Right to be heard & Right to Seek Redressal are the essential components of which among the following?
1. Fundamental Rights in the Constitution of India
2. The Consumer Protection Act
3. The Essential Commodities Act
4. Prevention of Corruption Act
Show Answer
Answer: 2
Explanation: The mentioned rights (Right to Safety, Right to information, Right to Choose, Right to be heard, and Right to Seek Redressal) are indeed essential components of Consumer Rights under The Consumer Protection Act. These rights empower consumers in their interactions with sellers and service providers.
Q31: Supreme Court has declared Right to Privacy as a fundamental right under which article of the Constitution of India?
1. Article 18
2. Article 19
3. Article 20
4. Article 21
Show Answer
Answer: 4
Explanation: The Supreme Court has recognized the Right to Privacy as a fundamental right under Article 21 of the Constitution of India. The Court ruled that the right to privacy is protected as an intrinsic part of the right to life and personal liberty.
Q32: Article 20 of the Indian Constitution is an important fundamental right as it provides protection in respect of conviction for offences. Which of the following is not a safeguard under Article 20?
1. Ex-Post facto law
2. Double jeopardy
3. Prohibition against self-incrimination
4. Right to be produced before a magistrate within 24 hours
Show Answer
Answer: 4
Explanation: Right to be produced before a magistrate within 24 hours is a safeguard against arbitrary arrest and detention provided under Article 22, not Article 20.
Q33: Which among the following freedoms guaranteed by the Constitution of India includes the right to know and the right to be informed as implied rights?
1. Freedom of speech and expression
2. Freedom to practice any profession
3. Freedom of assembly
4. Freedom to move freely throughout the territory of India
Show Answer
Answer: 1
Explanation: Freedom of speech and expression, guaranteed under Article 19(1)(a) of the Constitution of India, includes the right to know and the right to be informed.
Q34: Under the Constitution of India, which one of the following is NOT a specific ground on which the state can place a restriction on freedom of religion?
1. Public Order
2. Social Justice
3. Morality
4. Public Health
Show Answer
Answer: 2
Explanation: The Constitution of India allows the state to place restrictions on freedom of religion on grounds of public order, morality, and public health (Article 25).
Q35: Which of the following is the ultimate defender/guarantor of Fundamental Rights in India?
1. Supreme Court
2. Parliament
3. People of India
4. President of India
Show Answer
Answer: 1
Explanation: The Supreme Court is the ultimate defender/guarantor of Fundamental Rights in India. It has been given the supreme authority by the Constitution of India to enforce the Fundamental Rights, and individuals can seek redress from the Supreme Court whenever their rights are breached.
Q36: The Constitution of India mandates that the State may reserve any post or appointment in favor of any backward class of citizens who are not adequately represented in the services under that State. Who decides whether such class of citizens is adequately represented or not?
1. Governor
2. President of India
3. Supreme Court of India
4. State itself
Show Answer
Answer: 4
Explanation: The State itself decides whether a backward class of citizens is adequately represented or not, based on which it may reserve posts or appointments for them under Article 16(4) of the Indian Constitution.
Q37: The Supreme Court would issue a writ of the nature of Habeas Corpus generally when there is a violation of rights given by which article?
1. Article 14
2. Article 15
3. Article 19
4. Article 21
Show Answer
Answer: 4
Explanation: The Supreme Court would issue a writ of Habeas Corpus when there is a violation of the right to life and personal liberty, which is protected under Article 21 of the Indian Constitution. This writ is used to challenge unlawful detention or arrest by the executive or its agencies.
Q38: The decision of an inferior court or tribunal can be quashed when there is an error of law, by issuing a writ of which of the following nature?
1. Mandamus
2. Prohibition
3. Certiorari
4. None of them
Show Answer
Answer: 3
Explanation: A writ of Certiorari is issued to quash a decision of an inferior court or tribunal when there is an error of law, the subject matter falls beyond the jurisdiction of the body, the body assumes jurisdiction based on a wrong decision, or it violates the principles of natural justice.
Q39: With reference to the Keshavananda Bharati Case, the Supreme Court of India mandated that ___:
1. Basic features of the Constitution of India are not amendable at all.
2. Fundamental Rights are counted in the basic features.
Choose the right code:
1. Only 1
2. Only 2
3. Both 1 and 2
4. None of the above
Show Answer
Answer: 1
Explanation: In the Keshavananda Bharati case, the Supreme Court held that certain basic features of the Constitution of India are not amendable at all. However, fundamental rights were not specifically included in the list of basic features, as formulated by the majority and expressed in the Preamble of the case. The judgment helped establish the doctrine of the basic structure of the Constitution.
Q40: Article 32 of the Constitution of India guarantees the right to move the Supreme Court for enforcement of fundamental rights. This falls under which among the following kinds of jurisdiction of the Supreme Court?
1. Original Jurisdiction
2. Advisory Jurisdiction
3. Appellate Jurisdiction
4. It depends upon the nature of remedy.
Show Answer
Answer: 1
Explanation: Article 32 of the Constitution of India is a significant provision that falls under the Original Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court. It empowers individuals to directly approach the Supreme Court to enforce their fundamental rights. This ensures speedy justice and the protection of fundamental rights by allowing citizens to petition the highest court in the land.
Q41: Which of the following writs is also known as a wakening call?
1. Mandamus
2. Prohibition
3. Certiorari
4. Quo Warranto
Show Answer
Answer: 1
Explanation: Mandamus is a legal term that means we order. It is a writ that directs a person, corporation, lower court, public authority, or state authority to perform a specific act. Mandamus is a court’s command or directive that compels the recipient to take the requested action.
Q42: The concept of privy purses and privileges of the Rulers of former Indian States was terminated through:
1. Twenty-sixth Amendment Act
2. Fifty-second Amendment Act
3. Ninety-first Amendment Act
4. First Amendment Act
Show Answer
Answer: 1
Explanation: Article 363-A was inserted into the Constitution through the Twenty-sixth Amendment Act, 1971. This amendment is best known for the abolition of privy purses and privileges of the rulers of former Indian States. It was a significant step towards ending the privileges of erstwhile princely states in India.
Q43: The Right to Free & Compulsory Education (RTE) Act, 2009 that was enacted in 2010 provides a justiciable legal framework for providing free and compulsory education to children in the age group of _?
1. 0-6 years
2. 0-14 years
3. 6-14 years
4. 6-18 years
Show Answer
Answer: 3
Explanation: The Right to Free & Compulsory Education (RTE) Act, 2009, is a landmark piece of legislation that guarantees free and compulsory education to children in the age group of 6-14 years. This act has been instrumental in ensuring access to quality education for all children in India.
Q44: Which of the following rights is available to both foreigners and Indians?
1. Right against discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth
2. Right to equality of opportunity in matters of public employment
3. Protection of life and personal property
4. Protection of language, script, and culture of minorities
Show Answer
Answer: 1
Explanation: Right against discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth is available to foreigners.
Q45: The Articles associated with the Fundamental Rights in the Indian Constitution are:
1. Article 11 to 34
2. Article 12 to 35
3. Article 12 to 36
4. Article 11 to 25
Show Answer
Answer: 2
Explanation: The Fundamental Rights are contained in Part III of the Indian Constitution, from Article 12 to 35. This part contains a comprehensive list of ‘justiciable’ Fundamental Rights.
Q46: Which part of the Constitution is described as the ‘Magna Carta’ of India?
1. Part I
2. Part II
3. Part III
4. Part IV
Show Answer
Answer: 3
Explanation: Part III of the Constitution of India is described as the Magna Carta of India. It contains the elaborate and justiciable list of Fundamental Rights, which are more detailed than those found in the Constitution of any other country in the world.
Q47: How many Fundamental Rights did the Indian Constitution contain initially?
1. 5
2. 6
3. 7
4. 8
Show Answer
Answer: 2
Explanation: The Indian Constitution initially provided for seven Fundamental Rights. However, the Right to Property (Article 31) was later removed from the list of Fundamental Rights and made a legal right.
Q48: The Right to Property under Article 31 was deleted from the list of Fundamental Rights by the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978. It was made a legal right under which part of the Constitution?
1. Part III
2. Part X
3. Part XII
4. Part XIV
Show Answer
Answer: 3
Explanation: The Right to Property, which was earlier a Fundamental Right under Article 31, was removed from Part III of the Constitution and made a legal right under Part XII by the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act in 1978.
Q49: Which of the following Articles in Part III of the Constitution is related to the Right to Freedom of Religion?
1. Article 16 to 19
2. Article 19 to 22
3. Article 23 & 24
4. Article 25 to 28
Show Answer
Answer: 4
Explanation: The Right to Freedom of Religion is enshrined in Articles 25 to 28 of Part III of the Constitution. These articles guarantee freedom of conscience, free profession, practice, and propagation of religion. They ensure that individuals have the right to follow and profess the religion of their choice.
Q50: Which of the following statements is true regarding Fundamental Rights?
1. They cannot be suspended.
2. They may be suspended anytime.
3. They can be suspended by an order of the Prime Minister.
4. They may be suspended during Emergency.
Show Answer
Answer: 4
Explanation: The Fundamental Rights can be suspended during a National Emergency. The provisions for Emergency are given under Article 358 and 359 of the Constitution. Fundamental Rights are our natural rights but can be temporarily suspended during specific emergencies.
Q51: Who has been given the power to enforce the Fundamental Rights by the Constitution of India?
1. Parliament
2. President
3. Supreme Court and High Courts
4. All Courts of India
Show Answer
Answer: 3
Explanation: The Constitution grants the power of Judicial Review to the Supreme Court and High Courts under Article 13 in case of violations of Fundamental Rights. The Supreme Court and High Courts can declare any law passed by the legislature unconstitutional if it contravenes the Fundamental Rights.
Q52: Which of the following Fundamental Rights cannot be suspended even during a National Emergency?
1. Right to life and personal liberty
2. Right to move freely throughout the territory of India
3. Right to reside and settle in any part of the country
4. Right to carry on any profession or business
Show Answer
Answer: 1
Explanation: Even during a National Emergency, the right to life and personal liberty (Article 21) cannot be suspended. Other Fundamental Rights, including the right to move freely, reside and settle, and carry on a profession or business, may be suspended during specific emergencies.
Q53: Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution provides protection to the accused regarding conviction from double jeopardy and self-incrimination?
1. Article 19
2. Article 20
3. Article 21
4. Article 22
Show Answer
Answer: 2
Explanation: Article 20(2) provides protection against double jeopardy, stating that no person shall be prosecuted and punished for the same offense more than once. Article 20(3) provides protection against self-incrimination, ensuring that no person accused of any offence shall be compelled to be a witness against himself.
Q54: Which of the following Articles prohibits the employment of children in factories and hazardous industries?
1. Article 22
2. Article 23
3. Article 24
4. Article 25
Show Answer
Answer: 3
Explanation: Article 24 of the Indian Constitution prohibits the employment of children below the age of 14 years in any factory, mine, or hazardous activities like construction work or railways. However, it does not prohibit their employment in harmless or innocent work.
Q55: In the context of the writ jurisdiction of the Supreme Court and High Courts, which of the following is a correct statement?
1. Supreme Court’s writ jurisdiction is broader than the High Court.
2. Supreme Court’s writ jurisdiction is narrower than the High Court.
3. Both Supreme Court and High Court have equal powers in issuing writs.
4. Supreme Court can issue writs only on Fundamental Rights, while High Courts can issue writs only on ordinary legal rights.
Show Answer
Answer: 4
Explanation: The Supreme Court can issue writs only for the enforcement of fundamental rights, whereas a High Court can issue writs not only for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights but also for the enforcement of an ordinary legal right. Thus, the writ jurisdiction of the Supreme Court is narrower than that of the High Court.
Q56: Which of the following writs means ‘to have the body of’?
1. Habeas Corpus
2. Mandamus
3. Prohibition
4. Quo Warranto
Show Answer
Answer: 1
Explanation: Habeas Corpus is a Latin term that means ‘to have the body of’. It is an order issued by the court to a person who has detained another person, requiring them to produce the body of the detainee in court. The court then investigates the cause and legality of the detention.
Q57: Which of the following writs can be issued against a private individual?
1. Habeas Corpus
2. Prohibition
3. Mandamus
4. Certiorari
Show Answer
Answer: 1
Explanation: The writ of Habeas Corpus can be issued against both public authorities and private individuals. It serves as a powerful tool for safeguarding an individual’s right to liberty, irrespective of whether the detaining party is a government authority or a private person. It ensures that the detention is lawful and justified under the legal framework.
Q58: Which of the following writs means ‘to be informed’?
1. Quo-Warranto
2. Prohibition
3. Mandamus
4. Certiorari
Show Answer
Answer: 4
Explanation: Certiorari, with its Latin meaning ‘to be certified’ or ‘to be informed,’ is a legal writ issued by a higher court to a lower court. It requests the lower court to transfer a case pending with it to the higher court or to quash an order made by the lower court in a case. Certiorari is typically issued in situations where there is a perceived excess or lack of jurisdiction by the lower court or an error of law. It is a critical mechanism for upholding the rule of law and ensuring legal correctness in judicial decisions.
Q59: Which of the following writs issue a command to a public official asking him to perform his official duties that he has failed or refused to perform?
1. Certiorari
2. Mandamus
3. Habeas Corpus
4. Quo-Warranto
Show Answer
Answer: 2
Explanation: Mandamus, literally meaning ‘we command,’ is another vital writ. It is issued to command a public official to perform their official duties, which they have neglected or refused to execute. Mandamus can be directed against a broad range of parties, including public bodies, corporations, inferior courts, tribunals, or the government. It is a legal tool that promotes administrative accountability and efficient public service.
Q60: Which of the following writs is issued to prevent a lower court from exceeding its jurisdiction?
1. Mandamus
2. Habeas Corpus
3. Prohibition
4. Certiorari
Show Answer
Answer: 3
Explanation: Prohibition, denoting ‘to forbid,’ is a legal writ that allows a higher court to prevent a lower court or tribunal from exceeding its jurisdiction or usurping a jurisdiction it does not possess. Prohibition serves as a safeguard against legal overreach by lower judicial or quasi-judicial authorities. It helps maintain the separation of powers and prevents the abuse of judicial authority.
Q61: Which of the following writs guarantees personal freedom?
1. Quo-Warranto
2. Prohibition
3. Habeas Corpus
4. Mandamus
Show Answer
Answer: 3
Explanation: The writ of Habeas Corpus is a cornerstone of legal protection for personal freedom and serves as a safeguard against arbitrary arrest and detention. It plays a pivotal role in upholding the principles of justice and human rights by allowing courts to assess the legitimacy of an individual’s detention.
Q62: Which writ is issued by the court to inquire into the legality of the claim of a person to a public office?
1. Quo-Warranto
2. Mandamus
3. Certiorari
4. Prohibition
Show Answer
Answer: 1
Explanation: The writ of Quo-Warranto, meaning ‘by what authority or warrant,’ is issued by a court to inquire into the legality of a person’s claim to a public office. This writ aims to prevent the illegal usurpation of public offices, ensuring that individuals holding such positions do so lawfully.
Q63: Which of the following writs is issued against judicial and quasi-judicial authorities?
1. Certiorari
2. Prohibition
3. Habeas Corpus
4. Mandamus
Show Answer
Answer: 2
Explanation: The writ of Prohibition can be issued against judicial and quasi-judicial authorities, making it an essential tool to prevent judicial overreach. It is not applicable to administrative authorities, legislative bodies, private individuals, or private entities. Similarly, the writ of Certiorari can also be directed against judicial and quasi-judicial authorities, along with administrative bodies, to correct legal errors or excesses of jurisdiction.
Q64: The writ of Mandamus cannot be issued against which of the following?
1. Chief justice of high court
2. President of India
3. State Governors
4. All of the above
Show Answer
Answer: 4
Explanation: The writ of Mandamus cannot be issued against a private individual; to enforce departmental instructions that do not possess statutory force; against discretionary duties that are not mandatory; to enforce contractual obligations; or against the President of India and State Governors.
Q65: Which article of the Indian Constitution includes the Doctrine of Due Process of Law?
1. Article 16
2. Article 26
3. Article 21
4. Article 11
Show Answer
Answer: 3
Explanation: Article 21 of the Constitution of India includes the Doctrine of Due Process of Law. It states that no person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to the procedure established by law. The right is available to both citizens and non-citizens.
Q66: Which of the following is out of the purview of Article 21 of the Constitution?
1. Capital punishment
2. Pollution of the quality of water
3. Sexual Harassment of women at the workplace
4. Medical aid to the injured by a doctor
Show Answer
Answer: 1
Explanation: Capital punishment does not come under the purview of Article 21. All the other rights mentioned come under the right to life and personal liberty, as it has been declared by the Supreme Court.
Q67: Who is the Guardian of the Fundamental Rights of the citizens of India?
1. Parliament
2. Judiciary
3. Executive
4. President
Show Answer
Answer: 2
Explanation: The Constitution of India has assigned the Judiciary, including the Supreme Court of India and High Courts, the responsibility of protecting the Fundamental Rights of the citizens of India.
Q68: Which of the following articles grant the ‘Right to Equality’ to citizens of India?
1. Article 13-17
2. Article 14-18
3. Article 16-20
4. Article 15-19
Show Answer
Answer: 2
Explanation: The right to equality is enshrined in Article 14 to 18 of the Constitution of India. Article 14 says that the State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or the equal protection of the laws within the territory of India.
Q69: Which article of the Indian Constitution includes the Doctrine of Due Process of Law?
1. Article 16
2. Article 26
3. Article 21
4. Article 11
Show Answer
Answer: 3
Explanation: Article 21 of the Constitution of India includes the Doctrine of Due Process of Law. It states that no person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to the procedure established by law. The right is available to both citizens and non-citizens.
Q70: Which of the following is out of the purview of Article 21 of the Constitution?
1. Capital punishment
2. Pollution of the quality of water
3. Sexual Harassment of women at the workplace
4. Medical aid to the injured by a doctor
Show Answer
Answer: 1
Explanation: Capital punishment does not come under the purview of Article 21. All the other rights mentioned come under the right to life and personal liberty, as it has been declared by the Supreme Court.
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